Quality Assurance

Q1. Measurement data is most reliable when it is generated exclusively for measuring product or service quality. True / False

Q2. Measurement can be used to gauge the status, effectiveness and efficiency of processes, customer satisfaction, product quality, and as a tool for management to use in their decision-making processes. True / False

Q3. A _____________ is a single quantitative attribute of an entity.

Q4. A metric is a ____________ unit of measurement that cannot be directly observed, but is created by combining or relating two or more measures.

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Q1. Quality control practices should occur only during product construction at the end of development. True / False

Q2. During development, the quality control process is frequently called _____________ and at the conclusion of development, it is called _____________

Q3. The testers’ workbench is the process used to verify and validate the system structurally and functionally. True / False

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Q1. Companies must constantly improve their ability to produce ____________that add value to their customer base.

Q2. Process management is also called _________ and ____________.

Q3. A process is a vehicle of communication, specifying the methods used to produce a product or service. It is the set of activities that represent the way work is to be performed. (T/F)

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Q1. _________ establishes the vision and strategic goals.

Q2. Quality planning should be integrated into the IT plan so that they become a single plan. (T/F)

Q3. _________focuses on the policies, processes and procedures which assure that the defined requirements are implemented, and the implemented requirements meet the customer’s needs.

Q4. The management cycle is also known as _________

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Q1. Adequate attention to quality in IT normally results in
a. low system maintenance costs and customer dissatisfaction.
b. high system maintenance costs and customer satisfaction.
c. high system maintenance costs and customer dissatisfaction.
d. low system maintenance costs and customer satisfaction

Q2. The Quality manager is not a significant factor in determining the success of the ongoing success of the quality activities. (T/F)

Q3. State the four project variables

Q4. The important principle of getting something accepted is referred to as _________ rule.

Q5. The Carnegie Mellon university states that it takes at least —– to move from Level 1 to level3
a) 4 years
b) 2 years
c) 3 years
d) 5 years

Q6. An organization in Initial Phase of Quality Function Maturation is result-driven, focusing on defining and controlling product quality. (T/F)

Q7. In Final Phase of Quality Function Maturation an organization’s objectives move from control to assurance. The emphasis is on defining, stabilizing, measuring, and improving work processes (T/F)

Q8. During Intermediate Phase of Quality Function Maturation, objectives such as consulting, motivating, and benchmarking move the organization toward optimization. (T/F)

Q9. State the major Drivers that Change the Role of the QA Analyst.

Q10. Quality management as a ___________ philosophy leads management to begin defining, measuring and improving processes.

Q11. Dr. Deming said that a leader of ____________ is needed to drive the quality management process.

Q12. The benefits of the Quality are always achieved without the assistance of QA Analysts. (T/F)

Q13. State the contents of the Quality charter.

Q14. A major reason to appoint a quality manager is to ensure that there will be a continuous force on quality in the organization. (T/F)

Q15. The best positioning for reporting for quality groups is
a. Reports to senior IT manager
b. Reports to manager of systems programming
c. Reports outside of the IT function

Q16. Quality tools can be used to
a) To define measures
b) To manipulate measures
c) Collect data and Improve processes
f) All of the above.

Q17. Name the three major Quality tools.

Q18. __________ is a technique used to quickly generate a quantity of creative or original ideas on or about a process, problem, product, or service.

Q19. To generate affinity diagrams, steps should be continued after __________
a) Affinity diagram
b) Force field analysis
c) Cause and effect Diagram
d) Brain storming
e) None of the above

Q20. Define Nominal Group Technique.

Q21. Cause and Effect diagrams are applicable for
a. Analyzing problems.
b. Identify sources of defect causes.
c. Scheduling problems/Cycle times
d. Implementing anything new
e. None of the above
f. All of the above
g. a,b,c

Q22. Force field analysis is useful in
a. Implementing a quality function
b. Developing education and training programs
c. Empowering the work force
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

Q23. A ________ is a more detailed flowchart that depicts processes, their relationships, and their owners.

Q24. What are the three types of benchmarking?

Q25. Collection of data is the step in planning phase. (T/F)

Q26. Determine Current Competitive Gap is one of the steps in analysis phase (T/F)

Q27. Define Matrix.

Q28. Write the two common types of matrices.

Q29. Give an example of task deployment.

Q30. Name some Statistical Tools.

Q31. A _______ is a form used to gather and record data in an organized manner.
a) Check Sheet
b) Pareto Chart
c) Affinity Diagram
d) None of the above

Q32. Check sheets can be used to record end user surveys. (T/F)

Q33. Histogram is a bar graph. (T/F)

Q34. Histogram can explain graphically whether the process is in control or out of control (T/F)

Q35. Pareto chart is a special type of histogram. (T/F)

Q36. Run charts are often used to monitor and quantify process outputs before a control chart is developed. (T/F)

Q37. What are the two types of variation?

Q38. A scatter plot is used for problem solving and understanding cause-and-effect relationships (T/F)

Q39. The stem-and-leaf chart is a variation of the bar chart using the actual distributed values shown by category (T/F)

Q40. Bar chart is two-dimensional. (T/F)

Q41. A pie chart graphically presents the ____________ of a total population.

Q42. ________ Chart is a variation of the bar chart using the actual distributed values shown by category.

Q43. The first step in generating a histogram is to
a) Clarify what must be collected objectively.
b) Gather data and organize it from lowest to highest value.
c) Tally the results
d) Use brain storming
e) None of the above

Q44. Questions on check sheets need not be organized by topic. (T/F)

Q45. Line charts are used to compare
a) Like units
b) Related or fixed variables
c) Like periods
d) Unlike periods
e) unlike units
f) ABC
g) All of the above.

Q46. Pareto chart is otherwise called as _________ rule.

Q47. Formula for Effective Behavior Change.
a. Behavior = Individual + Environment
b. Behavior = Individual — Environment
c. Behavior = Individual * Environment
d. Behavior = Individual / Environment

Q48. State the three deployment phases.

Q49. Some key activities performed by QA analysts that are not normally performed by internal auditors are
a. Developing policies, procedures, and standards
b. Acquiring and implementing tools and methodologies
c. Marketing or creating awareness of quality programs and concepts
d. Measuring quality
e. All of the above

Q50. _____________verify compliance to corporate policies, plans, procedures, and applicable laws and regulations

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Answers:

1. D
2. F
3. Scope, schedule, resources, and quality
4. Mafia
5. c
6. T
7. F
8. F
9. The two major drivers that change the role of the QA analyst are the management philosophy used in the IT group, and the personal belief system of managers
10. Process-oriented
11. Statistical methodology
12. F
13. Scope, Objectives, Responsibilities
14. T
15. a
16. False
17. Management Tools, Statistical Tools, Presentation Tools
18. Brainstorming
19. d)
20. The nominal group technique is a structured, facilitated technique where all team members participate by individually ranking ideas, issues, concerns, and solutions, and then achieve consensus by combining the individual rankings
21. g
22. d
23. Process map
24. Process Benchmarking, Product Benchmarking, Performance Benchmarking
25. T
26. T
27. A matrix is a structured, problem-solving technique used to show the relationship between groupings
28. the L-type matrix and the T-type matrix.
29. A combined example would be a training class
30. Check Sheet/Histogram/Pareto Chart/Run Chart/Control Chart/Scatter Plot
31. Checksheet
32. T
33. T
34. T
35. T
36. T
37. Common or random causes of variation
38. T
39. T
40. T
41. Components
42. The stem-and-leaf chart
43. B. Gather data and organize it from lowest to highest value.
44. F
45. f a,b,c
46. 20-80
47. a. Behavior = Individual + Environment
48. Assessment, Strategic, Tactical
49. e
50. Internal auditors

Q1. Organization needs to establish performance baseline for __________, ___________ and ____________.

Q2. A baseline provides ______________ base from which change can be measured

Q3. The baseline studies are conducted by
a) Project Team
b) SQA
c) Quality Assurance Group
d) Internal Auditors

Q4. Objective baseline studies are one which are viewed as __________ and ___________

Q5. The cost and effort to develop new and innovative quality approaches within IIT is cost prohibitive (T/F)

Q6. The organizational climate is the workers __________ towards their organization.

Q7. A model can be used as a guide for continuous improvement (T/F)

Q8. Models may be customized to meet new or changing needs (T/F)

Q9. CMMI was developed to evaluate a software contractor’s capability to deliver quality software (T/F)

Q10. Which of the following are software process improvement models?
a) MBNQA
b) ISO 9001
c) CMMI
d) All of the above

Q11. An ________ is a process used to measure the current level of performance or service.

Q12. An ________ is a independent appraisal activity

Q13. A maturity level is a well defined _____________ plateau for achieving a mature software process

Q14. In a crisis, projects typically abandon any planned procedures and revert to a code and fix methodology in
a) Level 1
b) Level 2
c) Level 3
d) Level 4

Q15. Schedules, budget and product quality are generally unpredictable in Level 2 (T/F)

Q16. Project managers track software cost, schedules and functionality in Level 2 (T/F)

Q17. An organization wise training program is implemented in Level 2 (T/F)

Q18. The capability of an organization is summarized as standard and consistent in
a) Level 2
b) Level 3
c) Level 4
d) Level 5

Q19. The capability of an organization is summarized as predictable in
a) Level 2
b) Level 3
c) Level 4
d) Level 5

Q20. A level 4 organization sets quantitative goals for both software products and processes (T/F)

Q21. The organization has means to identify the weaknesses and strengthen the process proactively in
a) Level 2
b) Level 3
c) Level 4
d) Level 5

Q22. The MBNQA award can be given to Educational organizations. (T/F)

Q23. ___________ manages the Baldrige program
a) NITS
b) NIST
c) NISP
d) NISTS

Q24. ___________ addresses how the organization determines the requirements, specification, expectation, and preferences of customers and markets

a) Strategic Planning
b) Process Management
c) Customer and Market Focus
d) Business Results

Q25. MBNQA award scoring are based on two evaluation dimensions ___________ and ___________.

Q26. Each MBNQA applicants will not receive a feedback report at the conclusion of the review process (T/F)

Q27. Deming prize is awarded in ___________

Q28. Gives an introduction and guide to using the other standards in the 9000 family
a) ISO 9000
b) ISO 9001
c) ISO 9004
d) ISO 10011

Q29. Includes guidelines for auditing quality systems
a) ISO 9000
b) ISO 9001
c) ISO 9004
d) ISO 10011

Q30. Identify the subclause(s) in Measurement, analysis and improvement clause
a) Customer related process
b) Control of Non Conformity
c) Quality Policy
d) Provision of Resources

Q31. Following are the subclause(s) in Product realization
a) Customer related process
b) Control of Measuring and Monitoring devices
c) Work Environment
d) a and b
e) None of the above

Q32. ISO/IEC 12207 assumes a specific life cycle model (T/F)

Q33. Identify the supporting process as per ISO/IEC 12207
a) Supply Process
b) Acquisition Process
c) Training Process
d) Verification Process

Q34. Identify the Primary process as per ISO/IEC 12207
a) Problem Resolution Process
b) Audit Process
c) Supply Process
d) Improvement Process

Q35. ISO IEC 12207 is especially applicable for acquisitions. (T/F)

Q36. ________ provides a framework for the assessment of software processes that is appropriate across all application domains and organization sizes
a) ISO/IEC 12207
b) CMM
c) ISO/IEC 15507
d) ISO/IEC 15504

Q37. ________ Provides Guidance on performing assessment
a) ISO/IEC 15504-1:2004
b) ISO/IEC 15504-2:2003
c) ISO/IEC 15504-3:2004
d) ISO/IEC 15504-4:2004

Q38. The reference model alone can be used as the basis for conducting reliable and consistent process capability (T/F)

Q39. ________ rating scale shows that there is significant achievement of the defined attribute.

a) N
b) P
c) L
d) F

Q40. An post –implementation audit is conducted to determine
a) The system objectives were met
b) The system specifications were implemented as specified
c) The development standards were followed
d) Any or all of the above

Answers:

1. CMMI, MBNQA, ISO9001:2000
2. Quantitative
3. Quality Assurance Group
4. Factual and Nonargumentative
5. True
6. Attitude
7. True
8. True
9. True
10. d
11. Assessment
12. Audit
13. Evolutionary
14. Level 1
15. False
16. True
17. False
18. Level 3
19. Level 4
20. True
21. Level 5
22. True
23. NIST
24. c)
25. Process and results
26. False
27. Japan
28. ISO 9000
29. d)
30. b)
31. a and b
32. False
33. Verification process
34. c)
35. True
36. d)
37. a)
38. False
39. c)
40. d)

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Q1. Who is responsible for implementation for any major quality initiative?
a) Management
b) Employees
c) A and b
d) None of the above

Q2. Implementing quality management is a long term effort
a. True
b. False

Q3. Executive management should develop a quality policy and mission, vision, goals, and values statements (True/ False)

Q4. Management commitment is the single most important requirement for successful implementation of __________

Q5. Having management commitment does not guarantees quality management success but improves odds for successful implementation. (True/False)

Q6. Committing to quality management means
a) Understand the concept of quality management.
b) Adopt behaviors to show quality management.
c) Accept the need to change the participative leadership.
d) Provide funds for training.
e) All of the above

Q7. Executive Management should develop
a) Quality policy
b) Mission
c) Vision.
d) Goals
e) Value statement
f) All of the above

Q8. As the lowest group to accept the process, middle management is the strongest link in the most quality management effort. (True/false)

Q9. Which is the best source of motivation that a leader can provide to his team
a) Coaching
b) Reinforcement
c) Modeling
d) Training

Q10. Which is the first step in establishing the trust among employees in implementation of quality
a) Actively listening down
b) Talking down
c) A) or B)
d) None of the above

Q11. Understanding comes after behavior change (True/False)

Q12. ___________ leads to increased creativity.
a) Competition
b) Cooperation
c) Commitment
d) None of the above

Q13. Customer and user satisfaction is normally increased when they can get quick action from front line staff (True / False)

Q14. ___________ is a technique to build group compatibility
a) Fundamental Interpersonal Relations Orientation
b) Fundamental Internal Relations Orientation
c) Functional Interpersonal Relations Orientation

Q15. A task force is a _____________activity organized for a specific purpose
a) cross-functional
b) Functional
c) Departmental

Q16. Task forces should be organized for a single purpose
a) True
b) False

Q17. Task forces are _______ for decision-making than for solving problems.

Q18. Research shows that complaints must be resolved within ______ minutes.
a) One
b) Two
c) Four
d) Five

Q19. Following is part of complaint resolution process
a) Get on your customer’s wavelength
b) Follow up with the customer
c) Establish and initiate an action program
d) All the above

Q20. Quality and performance are judged by an organization’s ____________

Q21. The ______________ sets the tone of an organization

Q22. The quality environment is established by _________________

Q23. Effective communication is _____________, not spontaneous

Q24. Corporate governance is a _____________problem, not a procedural problem

Q25. ____________ communication is rated as the number one skill for the quality analyst.

Q26. How many channels exist for listening to a speaker?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
e) 3

Q27. __________ is the most frequently used form of communication.

Q28. __________ is a statement of principles, and a broad guide to action.

Q29. In monitoring, there are both _________ and _________ controls

Q30. After criticism is made, what should be made with the candidate?
a) Document regarding the bad work done.
b) Contract regarding what will happen afterwards
c) Agreed document between the manager and the candidate
d) All of the above

Q31. Which of the following is discriminative listening?
a) Directed at selecting specifice pieces of information, not the entire communication.
b) Complete message with minimal distortion
c) To put youself in the speakers situation
d) To analyse what the speaker has said.
e) None of the above.

Q32. Which of the following is Therapeutic listening?
a) Complete message with minimal distortion
b) Directed at selecting specifice pieces of information, not the entire communication.
c) To put youself in the speakers situation
d) To analyse what the speaker has said.
e) None of the above

Q33. Which attributes were included in establishing status when equated to IT environment?
a) leadership
b) technical skill
c) years of experience
d) all the above.

Q34. Quality promotes turning problems into opportunities (True / False)

Q35. When the quality processes are mature with defined, improving work processes the focus of the quality function is on
a) Optimization
b) Product quality
c) Process deployment and compliance
d) All of the above

Q36. Which is the least important skill for a quality manager in the below list?
a) Verbal communication
b) Project management
c) Programming
d) Systems knowledge
e) Knowledge of operations
f) Written communication

Q37. The size of the quality function ideally will vary with the size of the organization (True/False)

Q38. Which of the below tool help people to determine whether a process is in control or not?
a) Run Chart
b) Control Chart
c) Pareto Chart
d) U Chart

Answers:

1. a
2. a
3. True
4. Quality Management
5. True
6. e
7. f
8. False
9. B
10. A
11. False
12. B
13. True
14. A
15. A
16. A
17. Better
18. Four
19. D
20. Customers
21. Quality Environment
22. Executive Management
23. Planned
24. People
25. Oral
26. Five
27. Listening
28. Quality Policy
29. preventive, detective
30. b
31. a
32. c
33. d
34. true
35. a
36. c
37. true
38. b

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