Q2. Over 50 % of the software developed by offshore organization fails to meet the expectation of the contractor (T/F)

Q3. Unless the contract specifies the operational standards and documentation standards the delivered product may be more complex to use than desired by the contractor (T/F)

Q4. One of the offshore difference is
a) Gender difference
b) Class difference
c) Language Difference
d) None of the above

Q5. ___________ ______________ ___________ are those criteria or factors that must be present in the acquired software for it to be successful.

Q6. Match the following

1. Maintainability
2. Expandability
3. Ease of use
4. Security

a) The software is understandable and usable by the average person
b) The system has adequate safeguards to protect the data against the damage
c) The contractor plans to add additional features in the future
d) The contractor will provide support/assistance to help utilize the package in the event of problem

Q7. ___________________ is defined in data processing jargon as “interoperability”.

Q8. It is not important to check software products compatibility with other software packages and with available data (T/F)

Q9. Selecting a COTS software is _______ step process
a) 5
b) 8
c) 7
d) 9

Q10. List the 5 aspects of computer software to be observed during demonstration

Q11. The objective of ____________ _________ _____ is to determine whether your employees can use the software

Q12. The objective of acceptance testing is to meet the ___________ and ___________ needs of the users of the software

Q13. State the activities of acquisition life cycle.

Q14. It is important that all the requirements given to contractor are __________________

Q15. List 5 types of desired specifications to be studied during feasibility study

Q16. Quality professional should ensure that contractor sends _______________ __________ regularly.

Q17. The right of customer to move the application system from location to location is included in which contractual section
a) Warranty
b) Customer support
c) Installation
d) Transportability

Q18. The state under which the rule of the contract are binding is included under which contractual section
a) Life of Contract
b) Foreign attachments
c) Governing law
d) Penalties

Q19. A unfair may not achieve desired objectives (T/F)

Q20. The right of the contractor to look at the records of the customer is stated in which contractual section
a) Contractor employee rights
b) Contractor support
c) Updates
d) contractor inspection

Q21. What activities occur once the software is ready for delivery

Q22. The ________________ has responsibility of test the application to determine that it meets contractual requirements.
a) SQA
b) Internal auditor
c) Contractor
d) User

Q23. The ______________ should prepare sufficient test data so that deliverables can be adequately tested during acceptance testing.
a) Contractor
b) User
c) Customer
d) SQA

Q24. Contracts should be reviewed
a) At start
b) Project completion
c) Periodically
d) payment time

Q25. List the three items important in knowledge transfer.

Q26. Match the following

1. Competency of service
2. Cost of Service
3. Adequacy of control
4. Cost of operations
5.Skilled personnel
6.Error diagnosis

a) Control provided should be sufficient to assure that data processed by application is accurate, complete and authorized
b) The customer personnel should be adequately trained in the operation of the application
c) The Services to be provided during the life of contract should be specified in terms of cost
d) Service personnel should be sufficiently skilled to perform the tasks for which they are assigned.
e) The responsibility to diagnose problem should be documented
f) Cost associated with usage is measurable

Q27. Cost included in contract should include provisions on _____________ ______.

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Answers

Q1. F
Q2. T
Q3. T
Q4. C
Q5. Critical Success Factors
Q6. 1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – b
Q7. Systems compatibility
Q8. F
Q9. 7
Q10. Understandability, Clarity of communication, Ease of use of Instruction Manual, Functionality of software, knowledge to execute, effectiveness of help routines, evaluate program compatibility, Data compatibility. Smell test
Q11. Evaluate people fit
Q12. Functional, structural
Q13. Selecting an outside organization, contract negotiation, Operations and Maintenance
Q14. testable
Q15. Inputs required by System, Required processing, output produced by system, operational response time, information to be retained, Types of documentation, Volume of data processed, unique hardware characteristics
Q16. Status reports
Q17. d) Transportability
Q18. c) Governing Law
Q19. T
Q20. d
Q21. Acceptance testing, Operation and maintenance contract and contractual relations
Q22. Contractor
Q23. c
Q24. c
Q25. Training program for contracted staff, Being advised of defects uncovered by other organizations using the software, Ability to contact a contractor help desk to resolve problems/get additional information
Q26. 1-d, 2- c, 3-a, 4-c, 5-b, 6-e
Q27. Ongoing costs.

Q2. Establishing and maintaining the Internal Control system is the responsibility of the
a) Internal Audit function
b) CEO and key managers
c) Workers
d) QA group

Q3. Risk = ____________ x ______________
a) Loss x impact
b) Frequency x delay
c) Frequency x occurrence
d) Delay x occurrence

Q4. Organizational policies form a part of ____________ controls.

Q5. Controls are a means to __________ business risks.

Q6. What are the two systems involved in every business application.

Q7. What are the three different categories on internal control?

Q8. No control should cost more than the potential error it is established to prevent, detect and correct. ( T / F )

Q9. Amongst all controls, ___________ controls are the lowest in cost and ___________ controls are the most expensive to implement.
a) detective, preventive
b) preventive, corrective
c) corrective, detective
d) preventive, detective

Q10. Prior to installing any control, some _______________ analysis should be made.

Q11. In the COSO Internal Control framework, control designers have to go through a _______________ process before setting the control objectives.

Q12. Quality Assurance should focus on the security management controls. ( T / F )

Q13. ____________ is a weakness in an information system.

Q14. Information security baseline information should be collected by an _____________ assessment team.

Q15. Ownership and responsibility of the computer security belong to ______________ in the organization.
a) senior management
b) security officer
c) all employees
d) QA group

Q16. Security mechanisms (defenses) need to be ___________ so that compromise of a single security mechanism is insufficient to compromise a host or network.

Q17. Routines in a computer system that check the validity of input data are referred to as:
a. Environmental control
b. SOX control
c. Preventive control
d. Detective control
e. Corrective control

Q18. ___________ directly examine internal controls and recommend improvements.

Q19. There are two components of controls. The first is _________ and the second is the controls within an individual business application.

Q20. ____________ are the means by which management uses to manage the organization.

Q21. The objectives of transaction processing controls are to __________, _________ or ___________ incorrect processing

Q22. __________ control type of control is most desirable

Q23. __________ controls alert individuals involved in a process so that they are aware of a problem.

Q24. __________ controls should bring potential problems to the attention of individuals so that action can be taken

Q25. __________ controls will not prevent problems from occurring, but rather will point out a problem

Q26. __________ controls assist individuals in the investigation and correction of causes of exposures that have been detected

Q27. __________ action is often a difficult and time consuming process

Q28. In information systems there is a __________ associated with each control

Q29. The system of internal control is designed to minimize _________

Q30. Security can be divided into two parts. First is the ____________controls, and second is ___________controls.

Q31. ____________ should focus on the security management controls

Q32. ____________is a weakness in an information system

Answers:

Q1. Independent
Q2. CEO and key managers
Q3. c
Q4. Environmental
Q5. Minimize
Q6. Environmental and Transaction Processing controls
Q7. Preventive, detective, corrective
Q8. True
Q9. Preventive, corrective
Q10. cost benefit
Q11. Risk assessment
Q12. True
Q13. Vulnerability
Q14. Independent
Q15. All Employees
Q16. Layered
Q17. d
Q18. Internal Auditors
Q19. Environmental
Q20. Environmental
Q21. Prevent, detect or correct
Q22. Preventive
Q23. Detective
Q24. Detective
Q25. Detective
Q26. corrective
Q27. corrective
Q28. cost
Q29. risk
Q30. Security Management and Security technical
Q31. Quality Assurance
Q32. Vulnerability

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Q2. Measurement can be used to gauge the status, effectiveness and efficiency of processes, customer satisfaction, product quality, and as a tool for management to use in their decision-making processes. True / False

Q3. A _____________ is a single quantitative attribute of an entity.

Q4. A metric is a ____________ unit of measurement that cannot be directly observed, but is created by combining or relating two or more measures.

Q5. A metric normalizes data so that comparison is possible. True / False

Q6. __________ measurement uses hard data that can be obtained by counting, stacking, weighing, timing.

Q7. An objective measurement should result in ————- values for a given measure, when measured by two or more qualified observers.
a) Identical
b) Different
c) Sometimes same
d) Not sure

Q8. Subjective data is normally observed or perceived. It is a person’s perception of a product or activity, and includes personal attitudes, feelings and opinions, such as how easy a system is to use, or the skill level needed to execute the system. True / False

Q9. Objective measurement is more reliable than subjective measurement, but as a general rule, subjective measurement is considered more important. True / False

Q10. The more difficult something is to measure, the less valuable it is. True / False

Q11. The four types of measured data are
a) Nominal
b) Ordinal
c) Interval
d) Ratio
e) All the above

Q12. Nominal data can be subjected to arithmetic operations of any type, and the values cannot be ranked in any “natural order.” True / False

Q13. In ordinal data, the data can be ranked, but differences or ratios between values are not meaningful. True / False

Q14. __________ data has no absolute zero, and ratios of values are not necessarily meaningful.

a) Nominal
b) Ordinal
c) Interval
d) Ratio
e) All the above

Q15. In Ratio type data, the data has an absolute zero and meaningful ratios can be calculated. True / False

Q16. The measures of central tendency are the mean, medium, and mode. True / False

Q17. Ideally models should be developed that are capable of predicting process or product parameters, not just describing them. This is facilitated by measures and resulting metrics that are:
a) Simple and precisely definable, so it is clear how they can be evaluated
b) Objective
c) Easily obtainable at reasonable cost
d) Valid, measuring what they are intended to measure
e) Robust,
f) All the above

Q18. Match the pairs
A. Reliability
B. Validity
C. Calibration

1. Robustness
2. Consistency if measurement
3. modification of a measurement
4. degree to which a measure actually measures what it was intended to measure.

Q19. Measurement dashboards are used to monitor progress and initiate change. True / False

Q20. Using dashboards is known as “ _______________”

a) Management by Act
b) Management by time
c) One minute Manger
d) Management by fact

Q21. Statistical process control is used to ensure that the process behaves in a ___________ manner.

Q22. For a software product, the requirements, the complexity of the software design, the size of the final program’s source or object code, or the number of pages of documentation produced for the installed system can be measured. True / False

Q23. The cyclomatic complexity of such a graph can be computed by a simple formula from graph theory, as v(G)=e-n+2, where e is the number of edges, and n is the number of nodes in the graph. True / False

Q24. A _________ is defined as a necessary crossing of directional lines in the graph.

a) Cross
b) Node
c) Knot
d) All the above

Q25. Reliability is defined as the probability of a software failure, or the rate at which software errors will occur. True / False

Q26. Customer perception of product quality is measured using
a) Customer surveys
b) Service level agreements
c) Loyalty
d) Recommendations to others
e) All the above

Q27. _____________ are those that can be controlled by improving the work processes.
a) Common causes
b) Special causes
c) Generic Causes
d) Controllable causes

Q28. Special causes are those that must be controlled outside the process; typically they need to be dealt with individually. True / False

Q29. A measurement program is defined as the entire set of activities that occur around ___________ data.

Q30. Mature organizations typically measure for budget, schedule, and project status, and management relies on project teams to determine when requirements are done. True / False

Q31. People in Quality group should help develop the measure. True / False

Q32. When results are not achieved, a quality management philosophy tells the organization to look at how the system (i.e., its processes) can be improved rather than reacting, making emotional decisions, and blaming people. True / False

Q33. The management by fact process contains two components:
1. Meeting desired results.
2. Managing the processes to drive the results.
True / False

Q34. A process is defined as ____________ when its mean and standard deviation remain constant over time.
a) Unstable
b) Unreliable
c) Stable
d) Reliable
e) Controllable

Q35. A ___________ process is predictable,
a) Unstable
b) Unreliable
c) Stable
d) Reliable
e) Controllable

Q36. If special causes of variation exist, the process may be unpredictable, and therefore stable. True / False

Q37. A state of statistical control is established when all special causes of variation have been eliminated True / False

Q38. Classify into common causes and Special causes
No available disk space, Citywide power returns or business returns to normal operations after 3 days, Invalid data, Errors in operating or job, Control instructions, The operator strike ends

Q39. Because special causes are `sporadic contributors,’ due to some specific circumstances, the `process’ or `system’ variability is defined without them.” True / False

Q40. Improvements to address the ———- causes of variation usually require process or system changes.
a) Common causes
b) Special causes
c) Generic Causes
d) Controllable causes

Q41. Reducing variation due to common causes is process improvement and the real essence of continuous process improvement. True / False

Q42. Which is the most capable process and why?

Q43. Risk management involves the activities of defining, measuring, prioritizing, and managing risk in order to eliminate or minimize any potential negative effect associated with risk. True / False

Q44. Risk is the possibility that an unfavorable event will occur. True / False

Q45. The probability of risk occurring at the beginning of the project is very low (due to the unknowns), whereas at the end of the project the probability is very high. True / False

Q46. Risk management is the process used to identify, analyze, and respond to a risk. True / False

Q47. Risk management consists of
a) Risk Identification
b) Risk Quantification
c) Risk Response Development
d) Risk Response Control
e) All the above

Q48. Match the pair

1. Risk Identification
2. Risk Analysis
3. Risk Prioritization
4. Risk Response Planning
5. Risk Resolution
6. Risk Monitoring

a. The process that evaluates the action taken, documents the risk results and repeats the cycle of identification, quantification and response.
b. The process that answers the question “What should be done about the risk?”
c. The process that answers the question “Which risks do we care about?”
d. The process that answers the question “What are the risks?”
e. The process that answers the question “How are the risks prioritized?”
f. The process that executes the plan that was developed in the prior step.

Q49. Expected value =
a) Value * Cost
b) Probability * Impact
c) Probability * value
d) Cost * impact

Q50. Typical responses for risk include: procurement, contingency planning, alternative strategies, and insurance. True / False

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Answers:

Q1. False
Q2. True
Q3. Measure
Q4. Derived
Q5. True
Q6. Objective
Q7. a)Identical
Q8. True
Q9. True
Q10. False
Q11. All of the above
Q12. False
Q13. True
Q14. C
Q15. True
Q16. True
Q17. All the above
Q18. A-2, B-4, C-3
Q19. True
Q20. D
Q21. Consistent
Q22. True
Q23. True
Q24. C
Q25. True
Q26. E
Q27. A
Q28. True
Q29. quantitative
Q30. False
Q31. False
Q32. True
Q33. True
Q34. C
Q35. C
Q36. False
Q37. True
Q38. Special causes: the operator strike ends, citywide power returns or business returns to normal operations after an
Common causes: invalid data, no available disk space, and errors in operating or job
control instructions.
Q39. True
Q40. A
Q41. True
Q42. C
Q43. True
Q44. True
Q45. False
Q46. True
Q47. E

Q48. Risk Identification – this process answers the question “What are the risks?”

Risk Analysis – this process answers the question “Which risks do we care about?”

Risk Prioritization – this process answers the question “How are the risks prioritized?”

Risk Response Planning – this process answers the question “What should be done
about the risk?”

Risk Resolution – this process executes the plan that was developed in the prior step.

Risk Monitoring – this process evaluates the action taken, documents the risk results
and repeats the cycle of identification, quantification and response

Q49. B. Probability * Impact
Q50. True

Q2. During development, the quality control process is frequently called _____________ and at the conclusion of development, it is called _____________

Q3. The testers’ workbench is the process used to verify and validate the system structurally and functionally. True / False

Q4. Unit Testing
a. Simulate operation of the entire system and confirm that it runs correctly.
b. Ensures that a single program, module, or unit of code function as designed.
c. Real-world test is the most important to the business, and it cannot be conducted in isolation
d. Conducted on tasks that involve more than one application or database, or on related programs, modules, or units of code, to validate that multiple parts of the system interact according to the system design

Q5. Integration Testing
a. Simulate operation of the entire system and confirm that it runs correctly.
b. Ensures that a single program, module, or unit of code function as designed.
c. Real-world test is the most important to the business, and it cannot be conducted in isolation
d. Conducted on tasks that involve more than one application or database, or on related programs, modules, or units of code, to validate that multiple parts of the system interact according to the system design

Q6. System Testing
a. Simulate operation of the entire system and confirm that it runs correctly.
b. Ensures that a single program, module, or unit of code function as designed.
c. Real-world test is the most important to the business, and it cannot be conducted in isolation
d. Conducted on tasks that involve more than one application or database, or on related programs, modules, or units of code, to validate that multiple parts of the system interact according to the system design

Q7. User Acceptance Testing
a. Simulate operation of the entire system and confirm that it runs correctly.
b. Ensures that a single program, module, or unit of code function as designed.
c. Real-world test is the most important to the business, and it cannot be conducted in isolation
d. Conducted on tasks that involve more than one application or database, or on related programs, modules, or units of code, to validate that multiple parts of the system interact according to the system design

Q8. An independent test team is usually comprised of a Test Manager or team leader, Testers, and additional Testers. True / False

Q9. Static testing occurs throughout the development life cycle. True / False

Q10. Verification answers the question, “Did we build the system right?” while validation addresses “Did we build the right system?” True / False

Q11. Verification requires several types of reviews, including requirements reviews, design reviews, code walkthroughs, code inspections, and test reviews. True / False

Q12. V testing is also called as
a. U testing
b. Life cycle testing
c. Black box testing
d. Dynamic testing

Q13. A test objective (goal) is a statement of what the test team or tester is expected to accomplish during a specific testing activity. True / False

Q14. Test objectives, are usually defined during requirements analysis. True / False

Q15. The main goal is to identify defects within the stage or phase of the project where they originate, rather than in later test stages; this is referred to as “__________________”
a. Defect identification
b. Defect prevention
c. Stage Containment
d. Defect leakage

Q16. Since defects identified in the review process are found earlier in the life cycle, they are more expensive to correct. True / False

Q17. Reviews are an efficient method of educating a large number of people on a specific product or project in a relatively short period of time. True / False

Q18. Phase-end reviews are also called Decision-Point or Gate reviews. True / False

Q19. Regardless of the format, three rules apply to all reviews:
a. The product is reviewed, not the producer
b. Defects and issues are identified, not corrected during the session
c. All members of the review team are responsible for the results of the review
d. All the above

Q20. Phase-end reviews look at the product for the main purpose of determining whether to continue with planned activities. True / False

Q21. The checkpoint reviews are focused on critical success factors while phase-end reviews are general. True / False

Q22. Post-implementation reviews are also known as
a. Post mortems
b. User acceptance reviews
c. Customer reviews
d. None of the above

Q23. Tactical risks are divided into three categories:
a. Structural Risk, Technical Risk, Size risk
b. Intangible risk, Technical Risk, Size risk
c. Size risk, Magnitude Risk, Functional risk
d. None of the above

Q24. ________________ are informal, semi-structured reviews of the program source code against specifications and standards to find defects and verify coding techniques.
a. Code Walkthroughs
b. Code Inspection
c. Peer Review
d. Coding standards review

Q25. Validation ensures that the system operates according to plan by executing the system functions through a series of tests that can be observed and evaluated for compliance with expected results. True / False

Q26. Equivalence partitioning, Boundary analysis are part of
a. White box testing
b. Black box testing
c. Regression testing
d. All the above

Q27. Thread testing and incremental testing are usually used together. True / False

Q28. _____________ technique assures that the change will not cause adverse effects on parts of the application or system that were not supposed to change.
a. White box testing
b. Black box testing
c. Regression testing
d. All the above

Q29. The test manager’s objective is to maximize the benefits of the regression test while minimizing the time and effort required for executing the test. True / False

Q30. Different types of regression testing are Unit, Regional and Full. True / False

Q31. The primary objective of configuration management (or change control) is to get the right change installed at the right time. True / False

Q32. A defect is a variance from expectations. True / False

Q33. Can defects be used for improving process? (Yes/No)

Answers:

Q1. False
Q2. verification & validation
Q3. True
Q4. b
Q5. d
Q6. a
Q7. c
Q8. True
Q9. True
Q10. False
Q11. True
Q12. b
Q13. True
Q14. True
Q15. c
Q16. False
Q17. True
Q18. True
Q19. d
Q20. True
Q21. True
Q22. a
Q23. a
Q24. a
Q25. True
Q26. b
Q27. True
Q28. c
Q29. True
Q30. True
Q31. True
Q32. True
Q33. Yes

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Q2. Process management is also called _________ and ____________.

Q3. A process is a vehicle of communication, specifying the methods used to produce a product or service. It is the set of activities that represent the way work is to be performed. (T/F)

Q4. Processes add value to both ___________ and the ________

Q5. Processes are not needed to assure predictability of work activities so that approximately the same deliverables will be produced with the same resources each time the process is followed (T/F)

Q6. A quality management approach is driven through ___________

Q7. Workbenches are also called _________, ____________ or __________

Q8. A process can be viewed as one or more workbenches (T/F)

Q9. Depending on the maturity of the organization, process workbenches may be defined by ________________, _____________ or ____________

Q10. The workbench is comprised of two procedures___________, which correspond to the ____________ phases of the PDCA cycle.

Q11. A policy indicates ____________or outcomes of process performance, and should link to the organization’s ____________and support _____________

Q12. A standard must be ____________, _____________ and ____________

Q13. Deliverables serve as both_________ and _____________, a process

Q14. The business control model includes three general categories of control, which are____________, ____________ and ____________ .

Q15. Management must punish the people assigned to the work processes instead of resolving noncompliance to processes (T/F)

Q16. The maturing of the _______________help mature the management and work processes.

Q17. The primary change in work processes is the amount of worker skill and personal contribution to the product or service produced (T/F)

Q18. Work processes, check processes, and customer involvement, are _______________

Q19. Immature management processes are usually managed through controls such as budget and schedule, rather than relying on _____________.

Q20. The involvement of the quality function __________with the maturity level of the quality management system

Q21. The quality function may
a) Participate on committees, providing process management expertise.
b) Provide team support, such as training, coaching, and facilitation.
c) Serve as a centralized resource for measurement analysis and reporting.
d) All of the above

Q22. A process template is a pictorial representation of what is needed to comply with the process requirements. (T/F)

Q23. The PDCA cycle includes ________processes, together with the infrastructure group that uses that process

Q24. The Plan cycle is used by the _____________________.

Q25. The Act Cycle is used by the Process Development Team (T/F)

Q26. The three main objectives of process mapping are
a) to understand how a process contributes to meeting the organization’s mission and goals,
b) who is responsible for the process, and
c) how the process interfaces to produce the organization’s outcomes
d) All the above

Q27. If formal strategic planning is not regularly performed, identifying an organization’s mission and goals is not difficult (T/F)

Q28. The process management processes need not be used in the sequence in which they are described (T/F)

Q29. The Do cycle is used by the Process Development Team and includes these processes
a) Process Definition defines a process’ policies, standards, task procedures, deliverables, people and skill requirements, and tools.
b) Process Controls identifies the level and types of quality controls needed within a process, and incorporates QC procedures into the process.
c) Process Planning sets priorities for process management projects (defining or improving processes)
d) All of the above

Q30. A workbench definition contains:
a) A policy statement (why – the intent)
b) Standards (what – the rules)
c) Templates that specify document format
d) Procedures (one or more tasks) in the form of procedural statements (how)

Q31. From a worker perspective, work processes are important to:
a) Increase the probability that the deliverables produced will be the desired deliverables
b) Put workers in charge of their own destiny because they know the standards by which their work products will be evaluated
c) Enable workers to devote their creativity to improving the business instead of having to develop work processes to build products
d) Enable workers to better plan their workday because of the predictability resulting from work processes
e) All of the above

Q32. For mission and goal mapping, look for __________where goals are not supported by processes.

Answers:

Q1. Quality products
Q2. Process engineering , the standards program.
Q3. T
Q4. Management, workers,
Q5. F
Q6. Processes
Q7. Phases, steps, or tasks
Q8. T
Q9. Process management (or standards) committees, QA analysts, or work teams.
Q10. Do and Check, Do and Check
Q11. Intentions or desirable attributes, strategic goals, customer needs/requirements
Q12. Measurable, attainable, and necessary
Q13. Inputs to, and outputs from
Q14. Management Processes, Work Processes and Check Processes
Q15. F
Q16. Check processes
Q17. T
Q18. Interrelated
Q19. Work processes
Q20. Varies
Q21. D
Q22. T
Q23. Seven
Q24. Process Management Committee
Q25. T
Q26. D
Q27. F
Q28. F
Q29. A, B
Q30. A, B, D
Q31. E
Q32. Gaps

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